Tampa 12/30 Opinions needed

[GPK]

Originally Posted by Bigsmc

The parlay is in the neighborhood of $350 if I am doing the math right (Scav where are you? I need my accountant.). I'm clueless. That would be on a $2 bet, since I played a $1 P3 do I cut that in half? If so, then the payout was fairly close.

Parlay was $340 for $2, so yes $1 would have been $170.

The pick three that was really low was the late pick 3 last Friday.

[Scav]

Originally Posted by GPK

Parlay was $340 for $2, so yes $1 would have been $170.

The pick three that was really low was the late pick 3 last Friday.

IF you only bet $2 on it, he put $27 into the ticket.....

If he played a $2 Cold P3 10/9/6 then yeah.....

[GPK]

Originally Posted by Scav

IF you only bet $2 on it, he put $27 into the ticket.....

If he played a $2 Cold P3 10/9/6 then yeah.....

Never heard of a parlay being figured out in that manner.

[Bigsmc]

Originally Posted by GPK

Never heard of a parlay being figured out in that manner.

That's because you don't live in Scav's World.

[GPK]

Originally Posted by Bigsmc

That's because you don't live in Scav's World.

He's on crack. The parlay is based soley on the price the winner paid in each leg, no matter if you singled a horse or used all in a leg.

[GPK]

Why does how much he out into the overall ticket make a difference?

I was always taught that to figure out the parlay, you take the price the winner paid in the first leg and roll it over into the 2nd race and then take that total and roll it over into the 3rd race. All based on a $2 mutual.

In this case:

Race 1 winner paid $3 for a $2 bet. Take that $3 and bet it on the winner of the next leg which paid $14, so $14 x 1.5 = $21. Take that $21 and bet it on the winner of the last leg, so $32.40 x 10.5 = $340.20

[Bigsmc]

Originally Posted by GPK

Why does how much he out into the overall ticket make a difference?

I was always taught that to figure out the parlay, you take the price the winner paid in the first leg and roll it over into the 2nd race and then take that total and roll it over into the 3rd race. All based on a $2 mutual.

In this case:

Race 1 winner paid $3 for a $2 bet. Take that $3 and bet it on the winner of the next leg which paid $14, so $14 x 1.5 = $21. Take that $21 and bet it on the winner of the last leg, so $32.40 x 10.5 = $340.20

That's the way I figured it. I just had no confidence in the method.

[Habersham000]

I am getting in on the late pick 3....

6,7,8
2,7
2,6,11,12

Good Luck everyone

[GPK]

Originally Posted by Bigsmc

That's the way I figured it. I just had no confidence in the method.

Using his thought process, different people are gonna have different parlays for the same pick 3. If you play the ticket you played for $1 and I play a straight ticket for $1, our parlay is still the same. I will just show a better RIO is all. You can't have a different parlay for the same pick 3.

[Scav]

Originally Posted by GPK

Using his thought process, different people are gonna have different parlays for the same pick 3. If you play the ticket you played for $1 and I play a straight ticket for $1, our parlay is still the same. I will just show a better RIO is all. You can't have a different parlay for the same pick 3.

Both ways are essentially correct, one looks at the winners on a $2 wager and the other looks at the winners based on you actually parlaying your invested money.