Dunbar/All: Parlay Question

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Originally Posted by Scav

Why would that $4.50 from the 1st leg go automatically to the winner, when the win parlay money is being bet into the win pool anyways, wouldn't it be divided by 3 since I had three horses in that leg?

I think your original math is correct.

You would have bet $6 on each horse in the first race. You would have cashed $27 on the winner. This would have left you $9 on each horse in the second leg. you would have cashed $75.60 on the winner. This would have left you $37.80 on each horse in the last leg, leaving a final tally of $51.03 after the third leg. $12 investment = $51 return. This would vary a bit since you couldn't make $.50 wagers but the math for the parlay is accurate.

[Scav]

Originally Posted by cloud_break

I think your original math is correct.

You would have bet $6 on each horse in the first race. You would have cashed $27 on the winner. This would have left you $9 on each horse in the second leg. you would have cashed $75.60 on the winner. This would have left you $37.80 on each horse in the last leg, leaving a final tally of $51.03 after the third leg. $12 investment = $51 return. This would vary a bit since you couldn't make $.50 wagers but the math for the parlay is accurate.

Ok, so you put the full amount of the ticket and not the $1, you put total cost divided by total first leg and go from there. Good information

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Originally Posted by Scav

Ok, so you put the full amount of the ticket and not the $1, you put total cost divided by total first leg and go from there. Good information

I've always thought it was good information. It's the only way to truly evaluate the parlay vs. pick 3,4,6 value.

[golfer]

Scav, I'm quite shocked you'd be asking this question here, and not talking to the KING of the Saratoga Parlay Sheet, Mr Billy Downs Sr.

He and I were discussing the parlay ticket for hours on Friday
I had no idea that bet even existed until I saw him fiddling with the fill in the blank parlay sheet.