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#1
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My spin for "round 2" would be to drop the favorite from the exacta and study two $1 exactas using the 10-1 under the 2nd and 3rd favorites. In theory (and application, I believe) the 10-1 would be attractive at that price and playable due to the favorite being a percieved bad chalk. But I'm still very interested in seeing the outcome. Thanks to all working on this. |
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#2
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#3
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You are both betting $2 on a 10-1 horse to WIN. For s**ts and giggles, let's call him the 10 horse.
Now one of you is also betting $2 to place on the 10, and the other is betting a $2 exacta: Favorite/10 Is this correct or am I still confused from reading this 3x? ![]() If you both like the 10, why not take another $2 to put on top o' the fav. I know its Monopoly $$$ on here but what would you do in the real world? |
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#4
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#5
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I'm pretty sure that your understanding of the question is correct...now we need to see which strategy is better...(makes you more money)
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#6
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So if I make these bets every race over the course of the meet, Which bet will turn the highest $$$? |
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#7
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Thought so, Thanks!!!
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#8
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Sorry if I missed this but how are you handling cases when the top two horses are both over 10-1? Are you counting the place money for both horses and counting it as two races in the sample? Presumably the best place payouts for a longshot will occur when another longshot is in the top two with it.
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#9
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Yes...any horse that is over 10-1 and finishes first or second counts. There are two possible examples in any race. |