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  #1  
Old 03-08-2007, 08:36 AM
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SentToStud SentToStud is offline
Arlington Park
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by blackthroatedwind
...

Just $2 to place vs. a $2 exacta below the favorite. That's it...nothing more.
Like others, I also appreciate this thread and I'm interested to see if the results confirn what I believe.

My spin for "round 2" would be to drop the favorite from the exacta and study two $1 exactas using the 10-1 under the 2nd and 3rd favorites. In theory (and application, I believe) the 10-1 would be attractive at that price and playable due to the favorite being a percieved bad chalk.

But I'm still very interested in seeing the outcome. Thanks to all working on this.
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  #2  
Old 03-08-2007, 09:24 AM
ArlJim78 ArlJim78 is offline
Newmarket
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SentToStud
Like others, I also appreciate this thread and I'm interested to see if the results confirn what I believe.

My spin for "round 2" would be to drop the favorite from the exacta and study two $1 exactas using the 10-1 under the 2nd and 3rd favorites. In theory (and application, I believe) the 10-1 would be attractive at that price and playable due to the favorite being a percieved bad chalk.

But I'm still very interested in seeing the outcome. Thanks to all working on this.
this is the approach I take, especially with larger fields.
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  #3  
Old 03-08-2007, 10:23 AM
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estreetposse estreetposse is offline
Louisiana Downs
 
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Location: Welfare, NY
Posts: 337
Default Let me get this straight...

You are both betting $2 on a 10-1 horse to WIN. For s**ts and giggles, let's call him the 10 horse.

Now one of you is also betting $2 to place on the 10,

and the other is betting a $2 exacta: Favorite/10

Is this correct or am I still confused from reading this 3x?

If you both like the 10, why not take another $2 to put on top o' the fav.
I know its Monopoly $$$ on here but what would you do in the real world?
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  #4  
Old 03-08-2007, 10:25 AM
Grits Grits is offline
Monmouth Park
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by estreetposse
You are both betting $2 on a 10-1 horse to WIN. For s**ts and giggles, let's call him the 10 horse.

Now one of you is also betting $2 to place on the 10,

and the other is betting a $2 exacta: Favorite/10

Is this correct or am I still confused from reading this 3x?
Yep, still confused.
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  #5  
Old 03-08-2007, 10:31 AM
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Payson Dave Payson Dave is offline
The Curragh
 
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Posts: 2,647
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I'm pretty sure that your understanding of the question is correct...now we need to see which strategy is better...(makes you more money)


Quote:
Originally Posted by estreetposse
You are both betting $2 on a 10-1 horse to WIN. For s**ts and giggles, let's call him the 10 horse.

Now one of you is also betting $2 to place on the 10,

and the other is betting a $2 exacta: Favorite/10

Is this correct or am I still confused from reading this 3x?

If you both like the 10, why not take another $2 to put on top o' the fav.
I know its Monopoly $$$ on here but what would you do in the real world?
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  #6  
Old 03-08-2007, 01:29 PM
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estreetposse estreetposse is offline
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Location: Welfare, NY
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DaHoss9698
No the original arguement was what was a better strategy in betting. Say you like a horse 10-1. Will you make more money over time betting the horse to win/place, or betting the horse to win and then betting the horse underneath in an exacta with the favorite in the race.

So if I make these bets every race over the course of the meet, Which bet will turn the highest $$$?
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  #7  
Old 03-08-2007, 01:43 PM
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estreetposse estreetposse is offline
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Thought so, Thanks!!!

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  #8  
Old 03-08-2007, 03:16 PM
SniperSB23 SniperSB23 is offline
Hialeah Park
 
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Sorry if I missed this but how are you handling cases when the top two horses are both over 10-1? Are you counting the place money for both horses and counting it as two races in the sample? Presumably the best place payouts for a longshot will occur when another longshot is in the top two with it.
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  #9  
Old 03-08-2007, 03:24 PM
blackthroatedwind blackthroatedwind is offline
Jerome Park
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SniperSB23
Sorry if I missed this but how are you handling cases when the top two horses are both over 10-1? Are you counting the place money for both horses and counting it as two races in the sample? Presumably the best place payouts for a longshot will occur when another longshot is in the top two with it.

Yes...any horse that is over 10-1 and finishes first or second counts. There are two possible examples in any race.
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