NBA Playoffs

[dalakhani]

Originally Posted by Cannon Shell

what does one call have to do with another? One was a guy driving to the baskket with the ball. The other was a scrum where both players got tangled up without the ball.

Both questionable contact fouls at the end of the game. It was obvious verajao rode him out. Enough for a call? No...but it was just as much a no call as the other. And if you dont get that, i cant help you cannon. Not even my saturday class can help you there.

[Cannon Shell]

Originally Posted by dalakhani

Both questionable contact fouls at the end of the game. It was obvious verajao rode him out. Enough for a call? No...but it was just as much a no call as the other. And if you dont get that, i cant help you cannon. Not even my saturday class can help you there.

the first call was not questionable. The second one was entirely different situation and Howard locked Varejoa arm first which makes him riding him out moot.

[dalakhani]

Originally Posted by Cannon Shell

the first call was not questionable. The second one was entirely different situation and Howard locked Varejoa arm first which makes him riding him out moot.

He rode him out with the hip and it was 50/50 on the arm. A no call, but still a foul to some degree. You just dont call it just like you dont call a block when the offensive player initiates a brush with .5 seconds left.

[Cannon Shell]

Originally Posted by dalakhani

He rode him out with the hip and it was 50/50 on the arm. A no call, but still a foul to some degree. You just dont call it just like you dont call a block when the offensive player initiates a brush with .5 seconds left.

How can it be 50/50 on the arm if one guys is on top of the others and they are going backwards? Lets ask Peegarden about the laws of physics.