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#1
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But yeah, just the concept of singling a 65/1 shot in leg 1 of a P6 is virtually unheard of. |
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#2
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#3
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Just two cents to think about (at least from my optimistic perspective) is that we're using the 65-1 number as the standard.
If this were a player who placed their pick-6 wager before the pools opened, say a bet from a bettor who wasn't actively wagering on each race and just handicapped it first and placed it -- the morning line odds and the final odds were: 20-1 -- off at 65-1 5-1 -- off at 8-1 3-1 -- off at 2-1 8-1 -- off at 14-1 While the early singling still looks fishy, it doesn't look quite as crazy when you look at the ML odds of the horses. This player didn't necessarily single a 65-1 shot, he or she may have singled what they thought was a 20-1 shot. If that matters.... |
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#4
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#5
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If the winner did legimately place this bet, he or she is probably kicking him or herself for not playing the parlay bet rather than the Pick 6, seeing as how it paid over eight times as much!
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#6
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Here's the link to the Brad Free article:
http://www.drf.com/news/article/86864.html |
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#7
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