Ok, ONE last time

[2MinsToPost]

Originally Posted by DaHoss9698

What are you wondering, why the second one paid so much more? The first one had a 1/9 to start off the pic. Which means nearly everyone who played a pic had that horse, and most probably singled. The second horse was second choice, and with the probability that most singled the 1-9, I'm sure there were a ton live to the third leg. The third leg was not an easy, but again, with such a short priced favorite winning the first leg, it's actually not a bad paying pic 3 considering it was basically a double.

The second one started out with a $65 horse which obviously probably knocked a lot of people out of the pics. The horse that one the second leg was a close second choice, but with such a bomb leading off, probably not too many live. And then the last race was a crapshoot.

I think it's a case of probably many people having the first one, and only a few having the second.

I feel ya there D Hoss

[brianwspencer]

well the $2 win parlay for the first pick-3 is only about $60, and the $1 pick-3 paid more than half of that, so it makes perfect sense mathematically. Dahoss covered the intuitive side of it, that nobody on earth is going to get eliminated in the first leg of a pick-3 won by a 1-9 shot.