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Originally Posted by Scav
Why would that $4.50 from the 1st leg go automatically to the winner, when the win parlay money is being bet into the win pool anyways, wouldn't it be divided by 3 since I had three horses in that leg?
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I think your original math is correct.
You would have bet $6 on each horse in the first race. You would have cashed $27 on the winner. This would have left you $9 on each horse in the second leg. you would have cashed $75.60 on the winner. This would have left you $37.80 on each horse in the last leg, leaving a final tally of $51.03 after the third leg. $12 investment = $51 return. This would vary a bit since you couldn't make $.50 wagers but the math for the parlay is accurate.
07-31-2007, 12:33 PM
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