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Originally Posted by GPK
Why does how much he out into the overall ticket make a difference?
I was always taught that to figure out the parlay, you take the price the winner paid in the first leg and roll it over into the 2nd race and then take that total and roll it over into the 3rd race. All based on a $2 mutual.
In this case:
Race 1 winner paid $3 for a $2 bet. Take that $3 and bet it on the winner of the next leg which paid $14, so $14 x 1.5 = $21. Take that $21 and bet it on the winner of the last leg, so $32.40 x 10.5 = $340.20
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That's the way I figured it. I just had no confidence in the method.