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Originally Posted by Scav
Why would that $4.50 from the 1st leg go automatically to the winner, when the win parlay money is being bet into the win pool anyways, wouldn't it be divided by 3 since I had three horses in that leg?
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it's the same math. but that's the $1 parlay for those 3 horses. You'd need to bet $12 to cover them all for $1.