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Originally Posted by Rudeboyelvis
I'm sure I'm missing something glaringly obvious, but how? The intent I interpreted from the letter is that derivative of the bet is insignifigant unless played multiple times, resulting in a win of 600.00, minus the cost of the initial play, right?
In this case, the end result is 30.20, they can't assume that it was a fractionalized 2.00 bet, unless it was bet for a dime 20 times on twenty separate tickets..... Can they???!!! 
I seriously didn't read it that way. |
It was a bad attempt at humor RBE. I should've stopped the post before that.