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Originally Posted by Antitrust32
you have the advantage with the 250 sample size because as you know, there is only one favorite per race (sometimes not a clear favorite) and there are more than 1 10-1 shot in each race. so you have to figure, is the one longshot that gets the place really the one you would have played? do you take into consideration all those $2WP bets you lost cause the majority of the 10-1 shots ran third or off the board?
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i think there are two things wrong with this logic-
sample size doesn't give anyone a distinct advantage- the more races you include, the more accurate the results will be- but the sample size doesn't favor one side or the other. there will still only be one favorite in the other 750 races if you do a thousand and still be more than one 10-1 shot. . .
also, neither side has the advantage because there is more than one 10-1 shot in each race and only one favorite. . . both sides get all the long shots and the fave is the most likely winner. . .
not sure if that makes total sense but it does to me